The Jacobian Conjecture was recently proven to be wrong for the case of dimension 3 and higher by Fable (and then an internal OpenAI model IIRC). Most of the posts I came across were either about the sequence of events leading to the announcement or an interpretation of the example used to disprove it. This kind of discourse makes sense for someone who is well familiar with it and working in a related area.
This article is written for someone who is not, yet is curious and knowledgeable enough to understand it. It takes the reader on a journey to understand what the conjecture is, what motivated it, and a couple of other related statements which were believed to be true but were later disproven, much like the conjecture itself.
Consider a function that maps (or ) to in the same space, where every output coordinate is a polynomial in the input coordinates:
Now add some constraints by making these assumptions:
Under this assumption the Jacobian determinant has to be a non-zero constant.
Since undoes , composing them returns the input unchanged. Differentiating that identity with the chain rule turns the composition into a matrix product, and taking determinants turns the matrix product into an ordinary product of numbers:
Each partial derivative in and is a polynomial function, because differentiating a polynomial gives a polynomial:
A determinant is a sum of products of entries, so the determinant of and is also a polynomial function. That leaves us with two polynomials whose product is the constant :
The product of two polynomial functions can be a constant only if they both are constants, because degrees add under multiplication and neither degree can be negative:
Both terms are non-negative and they sum to zero, so both are zero. Thus is a constant, and it is non-zero since its product with something equals .
Thus, what people had was this:
If a polynomial map (or ) has an inverse polynomial map , then the Jacobian determinant of is a non-zero constant.
To understand the implication of it, it is important to understand local and global invertibility.
Now one can ask:
If nearby points don't share an output, does it guarantee that distant points also don't share one?
Plainly said, does local invertibility imply global invertibility?
Before getting to the conjecture, let's spend some more time on the implication and the behavior it leads to.
Local invertibility does not imply global invertibility in general. A simple example is . In every , this function is invertible. However it is obviously not globally invertible since the points and .
Note that for a function to be (globally) invertible, its Jacobian determinant doesn't need to be a non-zero constant. It just needs to be non-zero everywhere.
In higher dimensions, there can be with a . Eg
Even though the first coordinate is quadratic, the that would carry the degree sits in the upper right of the Jacobian, where the determinant against anything but a zero:
Therefore, for polynomial maps over complex numbers, saying "the Jacobian is a non-zero constant" and saying "the map is locally invertible everywhere" are mathematically equivalent statements.
Note that the strong real conjecture did not require the inverse to be a polynomial. It only conjectured the existence of an inverse, that's it.
This conjecture was disproven by a counterexample in 1994.
Another interesting development in this area was related to the case of inverse polynomial maps for constant Jacobian functions i.e. polynomial functions with a constant Jacobian that also had an inverse polynomial function. Every example could be decomposed to one of these three patterns:
1. An affine map , whose Jacobian is the constant matrix itself:
2. A triangular map, where each coordinate is in the earlier variables only. The Jacobian is then triangular with s on the diagonal, so its determinant is for free, and the inverse can be :
The same trick stacks up in any dimension, one variable at a time:
3. A composition of the above maps, which is where it stops being obvious. Compose the triangular with the :
It looks like neither building block, yet it is , and its inverse is polynomial for the same reason: .
It was believed that all such polynomial functions were decomposable i.e. they were "tame" maps. In 1972, Japanese mathematician Nagata proposed a polynomial map which did not seem to be decomposable - a :
This fact was proven to be true only in 2003. This led to the fall of yet another conjecture related to constant Jacobian polynomial maps.
As of today, this is :
Now it is a good time to state the conjecture that was proven to be wrong just a few days ago:
Given a polynomial map with a non-zero constant Jacobian, it has an inverse. If such an inverse exists, it is guaranteed to be polynomial.
The proof follows these arguments:
Take the map from the gotcha above, now written in indexed coordinates:
Solving for the inputs one at a time is pure back-substitution:
Written in the form the argument above predicts, both denominators come out as the constant :
So nothing rational survives, and the inverse is an honest polynomial map:
The conjecture essentially claims that for polynomials function, local invertibility .
This was a because, outside of complex polynomials, local invertibility global invertibility. We saw the example of earlier.
It was disproved only recently (July 2026) for dimension . It still remains an open conjecture for .